All the while Jesus spoke he was carefully answering the three part question of the temple being destroyed, the signs preceding it and the end of the Mosaic era. Those were the things that would be fulfilled. He had not answered the first and third parts to this point and begins the lead up to the first and  third parts in verse 35 which is connected to verse 34 where Jesus that all things would be fulfilled.

In verse 35, Jesus emphasized the surety of verse 34 when he said, Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away. What did he mean by heaven and earth shall pass away? The context is the key to understanding which is the correct meaning. Jesus isn’t speaking of the literal earth or a literal heaven passing away, though many believe that is what he said would happen. Rather he is referring to the law (heaven) and the earth (material trappings that are included in the law and its many required observances. A search of the Old Testament will reveal that heaven and earth in some contexts refer to a literal heaven and earth, children and Israel and in other contexts they refer to the Mosaic system. Paul wrote in I Corinthians 7:31 And they that use this world, as not abusing it: for the fashion of this world passeth away. Paul uses the word kosmos--pronounced: kos'-mos (G2889) twice, which means world as opposed to age aion--pronounced: ahee-ohn' (G0165) used in Matthew 24:3, although the word world wrongly translates the Greek word in verse 3. As pointed out earlier in the series, the context requires age, not world. Heaven and earth of verse 35 refers to the age of 24:3.

Paul used world to encompass all people in Corinth which meant the established laws and societal interactions which governed their lives. That order was going to change due to the Laws of Moses which soon would pass away. The people of Corinth were a mixture of beliefs: Jews following the law; Jews who believed; Gentiles who believed and those who didn’t. Paul’s letter told the believers that change was soon to arrive and that is what he meant when he wrote fashion, Greek schema--pronounced: skhay'-mah (G4976). Their circumstances and modes of living would disappear when Jerusalem was destroyed. In like manner, when Jesus spoke verse 35, he categorically made it clear that the old order was going to disappear and the surety of that was the fact his words would stand forever and not disappear along with the old order.

Verse 36 is the source of more disputations. But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only. What did Jesus mean? Did he mean some date far in the future or a time when what he had spoke would to arrive sooner rather than thousands of years later? Many believe he shifted to a date far away and all that he spoke would occur far removed from the first century. However, that was not what he indicted in verse 36. Remember that he answered the second part with the signs that would occur to warn the people of the upheaval that would arrive. The first and third parts are linked, since as pointed out earlier, the destruction of the temple will bring the end of the age.

That of verse 36 is a demonstrative pronoun-adjective type-and must have a noun, pronoun or a group of words, an adverb or adjective for the antecedent. Nor can the antecedent be something not previously introduced into evidence, and in the case at hand, the antecedent is removed or not part of the discourse at this point in the verse. Then what does Jesus mean by that day and hour? Verse 36 is the answer Jesus gave for the first and third parts of the question in 24:3. First is the word that used as an adjective which modifies and identifies day and hour; a specific day and hour yet to be identified. The disciples asked Tell us, when shall these things be? Leaving out the second part which has been covered, the third part is and of the end of the world? Jesus told them he did not know what the specific day or hour would be for when shall these things be, and the end of the world. That then refers back to the question the disciples asked. The when (an interrogative adverb) of the question is the antecedent for that day and hour which Jesus did not know. One further observation needs mentioning which involves verse 29 when Jesus used the word for immediately. Jesus didn’t know the time of the destruction so it was the next immediate event and his only concern at the time he spoke.

More than likely there will be many that will not agree with what is presented in this part, but the rules of context, grammar and syntax will not allow any other dividing of the word and stay loyal to the truth. The disciples of that day knew the history, the law and what was going to happen. It is interesting to note that no one doubted what Jesus told them. They knew he wasn’t looking thousands of years to the future.

Part XVII will begin with verse 37 in which Jesus gave some more insight into the arrival of that day and hour.

© 09-18-2012 DEC